Was Eugen von Böhm-Bawerk wrong about interest?
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Was Eugen von Böhm-Bawerk wrong about interest?
Was Böhm-Bawerk wrong in his explanation for the emergence of interest? Saifedean said (in ECO11 seminar 4) that he was later corrected by Mises and that interest is the consecuence of time preference.
I just want to hear several opinions on this topic. I will appreciate every answer.
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